Sunday, February 5, 2006
Was Mary sinless? Yes!
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Someone posted this comment for one of my posts:

Mary was sinful like us

This is simply a lie. Mary had to be sinless for her to become the Ark of the New Covenant, Our Lord's dwelling. If you also believe what this commentor does, please see the post of mine on the Immaculate Conception.

38 comments:

del_button February 5, 2006 at 9:04 AM
adam said...

I am sorry for the relationship that I have started here. It is too much debate and not enough discusion. In my further posts I will hope to change the tone.
So far I have read part of the post and will finish it later. I do have many thoughts about the article that I will talk about later.

del_button January 21, 2009 at 2:24 AM
HotDJDave said...

Mary needed a saviour. Only one who has sin needs to be saved, requiring the Saviour, Jesus Christ, to save him or her from sin and eternal damnation. (Luke 1:47 KJV - Mary speaking) "And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour."

There is no exception mentioned in scripture regarding mankind sinning. Every scriptural reference of sin is applied to ALL mankind, save Jesus Christ, being God (YHWH; the Father - see Is 9:6) manifest in the flesh. (Rom 3:23 KJV) "For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;" (Rom 3:10-20 KJV) "As it is written, there is none righteous, no, not one:" (Gal 3:22 KJV) "But the scripture hath concluded all under sin..." (Ecc 7:20 NLT) "Not a single person on earth is always good and never sins." (Romans 5:12) "Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all mankind, for that all have sinned:"

Mary Was not a Perpetual Virgin. She had other children after giving birth to Jesus; hence, his younger brothers and sisters. (Mark 6:1-3 KJV) "And he went out from thence, and came into his own country; and his disciples follow him. {2} And when the sabbath day was come, he began to teach in the synagogue: and many hearing him were astonished, saying, From whence hath this man these things? and what wisdom is this which is given unto him, that even such mighty works are wrought by his hands? {3} Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, the brother of James, and Joses, and of Judas, and Simon? and are not his sisters here with us? And they were offended at him." (Mat 13:54-56 KJV) And when he was come into his own country, he taught them in their synagogue, insomuch that they were astonished, and said, Whence hath this man this wisdom, and these mighty works? {55} Is not this the carpenter's son? is not his mother called Mary? and his brethren, James, and Joses, and Simon, and Judas? {56} And his sisters, are they not all with us? Whence then hath this man all these things?



The following is from http://www.letusreason.org/rc1.htm :

Furthermore there are other things that cannot be ignored. Mary brought a sacrifice of two turtledoves in accord to Jewish law in Leviticus chapter 12. One was for a burnt offering, the other was for a sin offering. This couldn’t have been for the child who was the Holy one, the sinless spotless lamb of God. This must have been for her own uncleanness. Mary's conformity to the law is an admission she was a sinner needing to be restored by cleansing, only sinners need cleansing.

Another point of contention with the Scripture-- If Mary is the woman of Revelation 12 as Roman Catholics say, it describes her with birth pains which according to the Bible is a judgment on sinners (Gen. 3:15-16).

At the wedding feast of Cana, Mary realizes the wine has run out. She makes Jesus aware of the need, He replies “woman what do I have to do with you, my hour has not yet come.” Jesus felt she was going to reveal who He was before the right time and manner. He let her know He is not subordinate to a persons request, He is not subject to another person's will, not even His own earthly mother, only His Fathers who is in heaven. She had no say in his ministry. Jesus obeyed the law to honor both His Father and his mother, but he would not allow her to choose the time of his disclosure. She receives this correction and then proceeds to tell everyone to listen to her son. Jesus obeyed the commandments of God perfectly as it states “to honor your father and Mother.” In Luke 2:51 we see Jesus was subject to His parents, not Mary alone.

The wages of sin is death, all who sin die. If Mary was sinless she could not have died, which is what modern Mariology says in Roman Catholicism. What are the ramifications of Mary being sinless? She would be the first human being without sin since Adam. She would qualify to be our substitute just as Jesus, since only a sinless being could redeem mankind. There would have been no need for Jesus. The Bible is clear only God is holy in this way. 1 Sam.2:2 says, “there is no one holy as the Lord,” and in Rev.15:4 we see the redeemed singing the song of the lamb in heaven “You alone are Holy.” They are not singing this to Mary! If you are without sin, you are Deity! (this of course means after Eve sinned and before the resurrection where all believers will be changed together to have a completely new nature not having sin). Jesus said of which sin do you accuse me of…He had no accusers, Mary could never say this.

Dave

del_button January 30, 2009 at 1:27 PM
Mark said...

Dave,

You bring up some interesting points here.

You are correct to say that "Mary needed a saviour". She is, after all, a member of the fallen human race, and thus yes, even she requires Our Lord as Saviour. She says that, "And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour". However, that cannot presume whether she, herself, sinned, or was indeed capable of sin.

Yes, every scriptural reference of sin is indeed applied to all mankind, however, the Church's claim of Mary's sinlessness is based on the explicit merits of Jesus Christ, her Son, and the Saviour of the human race.

The reason we say she was preserved exempt from all stain of original sin, is because we say Our Lord Jesus Christ was truly her Son. If a woman gives birth to a sinless being, indeed the sinless Son of God, truly God and Man incarnate, then how can she herself be stained by any corruption of sin. Let me say it a different way, how could a 'stained' body give birth to an 'unstained' one?

We say Our Lord, in His humanity was sinless; how can we say His Mother had any sin in her. That is my understanding of the matter, and it is Pius IX declared the Virgin Mary, "in the first instance of her conception, by a singular privilege and grace granted by God, in view of the merits of Jesus Christ, the Saviour of the human race, preserved exempt from all stain of original sin" (Ineffabilis Deus).

No direct scriptural proof exists of this doctrine - but bear in mind Catholics accept the authority of Tradition, just like the Jews and Our Lord did - but the first scriptural passage which contains the promise of the redemption also speaks of the Mother of Our Redeemer: "I will put enmity between thee and the woman and her seed; she [by Our Lord] shall crush thy head and thou shalt lie in wait for her [His] heel" (Gen. 3:15). The serpent destroyed sanctifying grace in man; how could she conquer him, except by being sinless herself.

I will not claim to be an expert on this matter, but I will say that this doctrine speaks equally of the assent of the human being to God's will. Our assent is normally, whilst swelling up in us, not complete, not full. However, Mary's assent was full, complete; this indicates a unique abundance of grace, a supernatural, godlike state of soul, which finds its explanation only in the Immaculate Conception of Mary. And Gabriel declares her such (Lk. 1:28).

Regarding the claim of Mary giving birth to other children, this has always been dismissed by biblical scholars - until our recent fallen times - as a misunderstanding of Hebrew. The Hebrew words for brothers and sisters are the same words as those used for cousin and close relations. We have no biblical proof of Our Lord having any other siblings, and indeed Our Lord giving the Blessed disciple John to His Mother, and vice-a-versa, indicates Our Lord had no siblings, and did not want His Mother to be without children. He stopped her being the parental equivalent of an orphan.

Mary's "sin offering" - well, if you were raised a Jew you would follow the customs of your faith and culture, wouldn't you? After all, Mary, once she realised Who she was carrying her womb, didn't have to marry Joseph, but she did! Same thing, isn't it? Our Lord too, even though He didn't have to, did follow the cultural "rites of passage" of His people. He submitted Himself to circumcision - did he have to? No, surely not; remember not just the Son of Man, but the Son of God - but He did anyway.

As regards Mary's "death", the Church has never declared Her to have died. Rather, the Church says it is not known if she died or not, but that she is, body and soul, in Heaven with Our Lord. But that strays into the Dogma of the Assumption which is something for another discussion...

I realise you might not necessarily trust this source, but the following article in the "Catholic Encyclopedia" is most informative, and does better than I could:

newadvent.org - The Immaculate Conception

del_button April 3, 2009 at 7:45 PM
Anonymous said...

Mark, there is one flaw with your theory. First of all you assume that a "stained" body can't give birth to a "stained" one. Well if Mary is so-called "unstained" then according to your logic, her mother had to be "unstained" too right? Because Mary's mother couldn't give birth to an "unstained" Mary unless she was "unstained" herself. Well if that was true then every woman in Mary's genealogy MUST HAD to be "unstained" which goes all the way back up to Eve...OOPS....didn't you forget that Eve sinned as well as all the other women???

del_button December 3, 2009 at 5:30 PM
Anonymous said...

Anonymous...

Mary is unstained, but Christ is more than unstained. He is God Who saved us, so therefore cannot be born from a sinful body. Mary was born of parents with faults. But she was conceived without any sin. Her body was untainted with sin. She was a vessel for God. Mary didn't need to be born from an unstained womb in order to be sinless.

Christ couldn't be begotten in a sinful body because it would be a contradiction. Sin is against God.

del_button December 11, 2009 at 4:04 PM
miaj said...

Yes. Mary is sinless.

del_button December 11, 2009 at 4:11 PM
Anonymous said...

Mary is sinless.
God being so holy can't even look at sin. Isn't that what all the animal sacrifices before Jesus was about? For cleansing. The triune is God the father, God the Son, God the Holy Spirit. One God. God the Son was born of Mary. Mary is the mother of God. God can't dwell in a sinful womb for 9 months. Mary is pure and holy and sinless that's why he chose her. So Mary mother of God is sinless.

del_button December 14, 2009 at 4:57 PM
Anonymous said...

Where would we draw the line? If Jesus cannot be in a sinful womb can He be in a sinful world, universe . . .? The way I look at it anything is possible with God. He can be born from a sinful human 1000 times if he sees fit. Sure God could also cause Mary or whomever he wants to be born sinless but that would be unessary. There is no mention of Mary's holiness and no need to presume it. I would not want to go around telling God what the limits of his power are.

del_button December 16, 2009 at 11:19 AM
Anonymous said...

If Mary had to be sinless in order to give birth to Jesus who is sinless, then did her mother have to be sinless? If Mary's mother did not have to be sinless to give birth to Mary, why did Mary have to sinless to give birth to Jesus? The NT says that Jesus was sinless, but it doesn't seem to imply that Mary was right? The whole thing of Mary offering a sin sacrifice (Lev. 12:8) is something I never thought of until this year of reading Luke.

del_button December 27, 2009 at 2:26 PM
Anonymous said...

The Bible, in both New and Old Testaments, has been extremely specific about who and what to worship as "Holy" and as "God". There is never any ambiquity as to the consequences of worshiping the wrong god. Even the angels, sent to Moses and the prophets, quickly corrected misdirected worship, and it is never recorded or implied that they sinned. If Mary was required to be worshiped or was in a position to be an intermediary between us and God, the Bible would have been clear about that. Instead, it says that "I (Jesus speaking) am the way, the truth and the Life. No man comes to the Father but by me". If Mary needed to be in that "Chain-of-Command", if you will, than the Bible would have put her there explicitly.

del_button January 2, 2010 at 1:11 AM
victory7 said...

Thank you for all the scriptures for my friend who worships Mary, who must have been awefully special to give birth to our Lord.
If she were sinless, she herself could have died for our sins but she was as human as we are and tempted as we are but very special to have been chosen. She would turn over in her grave if she knew she were being worshipped. Thank God there are no tears in Heaven.
I love all people but please read the Bible for yourselves and do not depend on a Catholic priest to tell you what to believe.
The Bible says to study for yourselves to prove what you believe. We are all required to do that and are accountable for what we pass on to others that is harrasey.
Bless you and I hope you find the truth in God's Word not by hear say.
I love my Catholic brothers and sisters.
Many of them are reading the Bible for themselves and are finding the truth for themselves and because of that don't believe that Mary was sinless as Catholics are taught, because just looking up the scriptures mentioned here prove she was just like us but she was very special. She had to love the Lord a lot.
Please! God is a jealous God! Please read the Bible for yourselves.
You will be held accountable for what you believe in, no matter what you are taught.
Not all teachers are correct in their doctrine.
The fact that Catholics and Prespreterians believe that the sacriments turn into flesh and blood are another issue. It says it is symbolic.
It never says it actually turns into blood and flesh. Show me where you get this please.
In Christ love.

del_button April 2, 2010 at 10:43 AM
Anonymous said...
This comment has been removed by a blog administrator.
del_button April 2, 2010 at 10:46 AM
Anonymous said...

Thank You victory7.
Read the word for yourself.

del_button April 2, 2010 at 10:49 AM
Anonymous said...

why did you remove my post

del_button April 27, 2010 at 2:25 AM
Anonymous said...

God likes using weak and broken people in His plans because it reveals His glory. If we are strong and holy, what need have we of God? It is when we are desperate and broken, that God truly touches our hearts because we realize the humbling truth: we need Him. If Mary was sinless, why did she need a savior? Undoubtedly she was a godly woman, but to deem her sinless is going too far. The Bible is clear, "All are sinful, except for Jesus." The Bible is the Holy Word of God and supercedes any other religious text. It has authority in itself because it is God's Word. No where in the Bible does it ever point to Mary being sinless, quite the opposite in fact as already mentioned by numerous others. Catholic Tradition, of course,asserts the Immaculate Conception and says otherwise. But how is Tradition justified? The Immaculate Conception cannot be justified under Tradition inspired by the Holy Spirit because it would directly contradict God's Word in the Bible. God can't contradict Himself. Jesus Himself warns of traditions that supercede His Commandments and the Word of God. This clearly states that Bible is indeed higher than and the justifier of Tradition. If Tradition contradicts Scripture, which it does in the Immaculate Conception, then Scripture(The Bible) must have the final authority.

del_button April 30, 2010 at 10:37 PM
Anonymous said...

What are some scripture verses that prove she was sinless???

del_button June 11, 2010 at 2:36 PM
Anonymous said...

The Angel said to Mary "Hail, full of grace..."
Grace is the opposite of sin. If Mary is FULL of grace, she can not have any sin. She is already full of the opposite of sin. Also, Mary was Jesus' mother. She loved her son SO much that she would never hurt him, like any good mother. Mary could not sin; she would be huring her son. Would a mother crucify her own son? NO.

del_button June 14, 2010 at 12:34 AM
Anonymous said...

Being "full of grace" is not the same thing as being sinless. Scripture refers to several other people as being righteous or "full of grace." For example, Acts 6:8 refers to Stephen this way: "And Stephen, full of grace and power, was doing great wonders and signs among the people." By this logic, you would have to deem Stephen sinless as well.

In regard to Mary not wanting to hurt her son, just because Mary was born with a sin nature and fell short of God's standard of righteousness does not mean she directly crucified her son. Of course she would never do that. But nevertheless, she fell short of the glory of God like the rest of mankind does. It is impossible to be perfect. But it is a flaw in logic to say that just because she would not want Him to suffer on the cross she could miraculously remove every trace of sin from her life.

del_button July 24, 2010 at 10:12 AM
Emanuel said...

No, Mary was a sinner, and by sinner I mean a person that did at least one sin in her life. This makes you a sinner, for if you brake just one part of the Law, you are guilty of breaking all of it (James 2:10), but I assume you already know this. Romans 6:23 states that "all have sinned and fell short of the glory of God" and the wise Solomon also says that there is no man without sin, in which man is referring to mankind (1 Kings 8:46).

Why did Mary have to be sinless?

del_button July 24, 2010 at 8:06 PM
Matthew said...

The Immaculate Conception

490 To become the mother of the Savior, Mary “was enriched by God with gifts appropriate to such a role.” The angel Gabriel at the moment of the annunciation salutes her as “full of grace.” In fact, in order for Mary to be able to give the free assent of her faith to the announcement of her vocation, it was necessary that she be wholly borne by God’s grace.

“Let it be done to me according to your word…”

494 At the announcement that she would give birth to “the Son of the Most High” without knowing man, by the power of the Holy Spirit, Mary responded with the obedience of faith, certain that “with God nothing will be impossible”: “Behold, I am the handmaid of the Lord; let it be [done] to me according to your word.” Thus, giving her consent to God’s word, Mary becomes the mother of Jesus. Espousing the divine will for salvation wholeheartedly, without a single sin to restrain her, she gave herself entirely to the person and to the work of her Son; she did so in order to serve the mystery of redemption with him and dependent on him, by God’s grace:

As St. Irenaeus says, “Being obedient she became the cause of salvation for herself and for the whole human race.” Hence not a few of the early Fathers gladly assert…: “The knot of Eve’s disobedience was untied by Mary’s obedience: what the virgin Eve bound through her disbelief, Mary loosened by her faith.” Comparing her with Eve, they call Mary “the Mother of the living” and frequently claim: “Death through Eve, life through Mary.”

del_button December 5, 2010 at 12:18 AM
Jenny said...

What I can truly say is that most protesters try so hard to discreated The Blessed Mother. If Mary is not important as some say why would Elizabeth greeted Mary by saying "who am I that the mother of my Lord shall come to me." also if she was any regular woman like most of you claim she was why would God put "enmity" between the woman and the devil? Why speak about her at all? Do most of you know what enmity stands fir? I'll tell you. It stands for hatred, separation, enemy ect....

del_button December 5, 2010 at 12:31 AM
Jenny said...

This allergic reaction that most of you have is clearly not from God because of the hatred most of you have for against her. FYI no one has the power to understand scripture without the gift of the holy spirit so please stop reading scriptures that most of you know nothing about. Honestly I love when most of them do that. Besides the bible you clearly love so much is from the catholic church, and all of you came from the catholic denominations. So in otherwords the tree will always be right, and strong. Sure some branches and leaves may fall off but the tree will remain why? Cause the tree is the root and the foundation.

del_button December 12, 2010 at 3:24 PM
Anonymous said...

Christ is sinless, Mary was not.

Aside from all scriptural evidence, I feel that Mary being sinless invalidates some of the beauty of the Gospel. Was she great? Sure, she's Jesus mom, but did that require her to be sinless? No. Part of the beauty of the Gospel is that Jesus lowered himself to be amongst sinners, to live, love and serve us. He was born into a world full of sin, from a womb filled with sin.

Sin is separation from God, grace from God's context might be the absence of sin, but we as people can be full of grace whilst still being sinful. Grace is being wronged and by forgiving and loving the person who wronged you. You can still do that and be separated from God. Mary was separated from God like the rest of humanity. Had she not been she had no need to bear the world a savior.

To St. Irenaeus quote "Death through Eve, life through Mary" it sounds as if a misplaced sense of credit is going to Mary. She agreed to bear the savior of the world, but she is not that. "Death through Adam AND Eve, life through Christ" Christ is the one who promises us life to the fullest, He is the one who who forgives our sins, He is the one the came to reconcile us to the Father. Mary was his mother, and loved him dearly, but she was not without sin.

I have no hate or enmity towards anyone who views this differently, I have many Catholic friends, but this issue has never felt right with me. It doesn't feel to be in line with the Gospel of Christ, but please please read scripture and determine if what you believe or taught is in line with the Gospel. It is our mission to spread the Gospel, not our own views and opinions. Consider this "if eating meat causes my brother to stumble I will not eat meat." This is from 1 Corinthians, Paul is saying that if eating food sacrificed to idols causes other people (those less mature in their faith) to stumble and assume that idol worship is accepted, then don't do it. In the same way, if you believe an issue could be a stumbling block for a new believer (say confusion between Christ and Mary) then don't teach and preach it. Again this is just my opinion, and we're all subject to bias, we know not absolute truth until we are with the Father.

del_button December 14, 2010 at 4:06 PM
Anonymous said...

She is special but not because she has any super power of her own. She is our life because she is the channel the Father chose to bring us her Son. We love her so much because she is God’s Mother. Such consideration of Mary does not diminish the reality of who her Son is; rather, it magnifies it. She is special because of how much more special he is. Or do we think that he doesn’t deserve a mother who could be our life, our sweetness, and our hope? Her soul and everything about her magnifies the Lord. She is sinless not because of any prerequisite of God. God can do anything and didn't need her to be sinless. But she is sinless because that's the appropriate, fitting way for God's mother to be. It only glorifies Him all the more.

del_button December 19, 2010 at 10:49 PM
Jenn said...

I find it sad how some people say that Mary is sinless yet they don't give a scripture, right? I am only going to say this just once and hopefully this helps many: If Mary was sinless, she, like Jesus, would have to have been born of a virgin who was supernaturally impregnated because all who are born in natural form inherit sin from Adam.(that is why Jesus was not born naturally but supernaturally). Dont listen to peoples traditions(mark 7:8 and col 2:8), etc. for the word of God is final(prov. 30:5-6), its just like the second commandment tells us not to make any graven images(ex. 20:4) and what is the first thing you see when you step into some churches,not just catholic? Dont you know that the bible warns us of false prophets(2 Tim 4:3, 2 Pet 2:1, 2 Pet 2:2, 2 Pet 2:3, 1 John 4:1, etc. there are numerous verses)? dont you remember reading those verses in which Jesus called these priest and pharisees hypocrites in front of everyone(matt 23:13-17)? dont you know the bible talks about those that dress up in sheep clothing(Matt. 7:15: They look holy but are not). you may not believe me but i say this because i care and love all of you and if i was in your shoes and i was in the wrong i would appreciate someone to correct me for i am a sinner too...God bless you all :D hopefully this helped some

del_button December 27, 2010 at 5:05 PM
Random Girl said...

Do any of you have more Biblical references other than "Mary, full of grace"?
Because from all I hear it is all tradition and well, while tradition is good, it shouldn't necessarily be believed fully.

I agree with Jenn

del_button May 13, 2011 at 6:06 PM
Anonymous said...

Let's take the statement that Mary, being full of grace, to its 'reductio ad absurdum', or to its logical, absurd consequence. First, the Greek word in Luke 1:28 is 'kecharitōmenē' and should render the word 'who are favored' and not 'full of grace'.But, for arguments sake, grace is unmerited divine assistance given humans for their regeneration or sanctification. If Mary was 'full of grace', that would mean she was full of an unmerited divine assistance that was given to her for her regeneration or sanctification. If that is true, Mary then must have required divine assistance for which she did not merit. What, then, could Mary have possibly done to require unmerited, divine assistance? Sin. Mary was under original sin and required unmerited, divine assistance for her salvation. I plead for those who consider Mary to be sinless and provide intercession for you to repent immediately and learn the true role of the mother of our Lord and Saviour.

del_button May 14, 2011 at 7:37 AM
Matthew said...

First off, it would seem that the person arguing this point is not Catholic. I concluded that such because if and only if one accepts the Catholic Church to be true, then necessarily they accept Catholic doctrine, in it's entirety, to be true. The issue of Catholic doctrine is infallible, no questions asked. The Immaculate Conception, mary's sinlessness, was formulated by Blessed Pius IX in 1854 as Catholic Dogma. On a fundamental level, this is to say that the Catholic Church is a new epistemic source of knowledge from God tantamount to Scripture via tradition. We must always remember the dictum ever ancient and ever new holds true. So this is to say if one does not hold the Catholic Church to be true then there's no reason to believe that Catholic doctrine is true.

This is a side note to illustrate where the real issue lies. Scripture makes no sense outside the Church. It is a text that needs interpreting, certainly it 'speaks' to us as individuals but whether it is the devil or God seems to not be clear at all (as Satin claims to come as an angel of light), and the interpreter is the Church. Any revelation given by God need an authority to understand it. So even if we were to set aside the epistemological issues, which are real issues for 'sola-scriptura,' there is the ubiquitous issue of history. Where did scripture come from? Why not the dead-sea scrolls and affirm the four gospels? If we seriously try to address this issue and not try to make-up it up, the history doesn't make any sense unless we add the Catholic Church who has the authority given to Peter and is guided by the Holy Ghost.

To address the argument, which in light of what has been said above its really a non-issue, itself I submit that the issue lies in this individual's logical connection from " When, then, could Mary have possibly done to require unmerited, divine assistance? Sin." it would seem to me that in the prelapsarian state of affairs, Adam and Eve were in the state of grace. One could even say full of grace. Now certainly God did not create evil, that is to say Adam and Eve were not created in the state of sin to need unmerited grace (to use Mr. Anoymous' language) but still had grace. No, no it was from the tree of good and evil that the fall from grace occurred. So unless Mr. anonymous is suggesting that Adam and Eve were created by God as evil and thus needed “unmerited, divine assistance” because of this evil, it would seem that the logical connection of that premise is flawed. There is a contradiction entailed if we investigate closely what is being said.

del_button July 19, 2011 at 5:16 AM
Anonymous said...

We are saved by grace ephesian2:9, Mary is full of grace ( have been graced/perfect grace) kecharitomene in gk. hence, mary is filled with salvation. Sin is a separation from God, God live in Mary not only spiritually but also Physically hence, mary has no Sin.

del_button July 19, 2011 at 5:58 AM
Anonymous said...

Genesis 3:15 Serpent ( satan and sin) enmity (contradiction) with the Woman ( Mary) and her son(Jesus)( No sin and grace). because mary is the contradiction of satan and sin then She has no Sin/ filled with grace that sanctifies. To fullfill the prophecy, Jesus called mary WOMAN John19,Luke2:51 confirmed by Paul Galatian 4:4, confirmed by John Revelation 12:1, 17.

del_button December 8, 2011 at 10:05 AM
Anonymous said...

#411 in the Catholic Catechism declares Mary's sinlessness through the Grace of God.

del_button September 5, 2012 at 9:59 AM
Anish Jose said...

Traditions comes from Apostles. They know Jesus teachings well. Something not written in Bible is not a cause to be wrong. Bible says that it is not scribed all deeds of Jesus.

del_button December 30, 2012 at 1:49 PM
Anonymous said...

I believe whenever a person writes about sin they must always place mary out of their mind in union with her son. St Paul first must place Mary out of the subject and then say "all have sinned". St Paul deliberately points out God did bot tell him to say that reither he read it from the old testiment saying "scripture says" and the old testiment was written before mary was created so the romans argument is so invalid. Also people who reject the immaculate conception are jealous of mary because they arn't perfect like her.
Rejecting the immaculate conception is rejecting God's work on creating his future mother.

If your that anti-catholic watch the Da Vinci Code and realise the new testiment comes from the church so you try using it against it YOU WILL FAIL.

CATHOLIC CHURCH AND NEW TESTIMENT

Either BOTH are TRUE or BOTH are FALSE

MAKE A CHOICE

I believe both are true

del_button March 23, 2013 at 8:36 PM
Anonymous said...

If Mary was sinless she could have went to the cross and died for our sins. This sinless argument assigns Mary with equality to Christ's sinless nature. Nowhere does scripture tell us that any man or woman was righteous. Scripture does say, there is no one who is righteous, not one Ecclesiates 7:20 and Psa 14:3

There is no question that Mary was very blessed. But she was as stained and corrupted by sin as we are. Christ was not conceived by human seed and Mary's blood did not mix with the blood of Christ. Christ was conceived by the seed of God through a virgin woman, Mary. Our Lord Jesus Christ was born sinless and remains sinless and it is only by His righteousness, death on the cross, rising from the grave and ascending into Heaven that we find salvation. There is only one way, one truth and one life and it is Christ.

del_button March 23, 2013 at 10:11 PM
Matthew said...

To the above commentor, Mary was preserved from sin by the death of Her Divine Son on the Cross. Her blood could not redeem the world since she does not have divine blood. Your argument is ungrounded.

Those passages are being read out of context. Do not read the Scriptures without an authoritative guide to the Scriptures. You are not qualified to judge what passages mean as you do not know the original language in which it was written.

Psa 14:3 is David's lament that the people of his time had all gone aside and sinned and turned away from God. It is not a literal Scripture passage and certainly do not apply to the Virgin Mother of God, who had not yet been born at the time of David.

The same is true of Ecclesiates 7:20.

You are wrong and if you believe Mary was a sinner like us you can not be saved. The Early Church at the time of the Apostles and for the past 2,000 years has already regarded Mary as the sinless Virgin Mother of God. You do great shame to our Lord when you insult His mother as you just did.

del_button July 25, 2013 at 11:24 PM
realtalk187 said...

Grab someone who has never read the bible before in his life. Let them read from front to back, with no teacher but the Holy Spirit. There is no way he would come out with the conclusion that Mary is on a platform that the catholic church has placed her on. SHE WAS JUST A VESSEL USED FOR A TIME IN HISTORY. People can be so brainwashed by tradition.

del_button September 29, 2013 at 10:09 AM
Anonymous said...

Is there not a time where we are sinless? Lets just say like right after we repent?When we are in the Spirit? How do we become faultless without blemish!! I believe in that period of time she was sinless, because God made it so, but whether she was sinless or not her blood could not enter into Jesus so that is why Joseph could not use his seed to born Christ because he had sin.Catholic Church knows that there is none above Christ Jesus it is written in the Catechism that Mary would never want us to think of her as Higher than Christ!! I don't go to Mass every other day to worship Mary but I might say Hello LOL

del_button July 22, 2014 at 5:55 PM
Anonymous said...

realtalk187...there are many things that occurred during the time of Christ that were not written in Scripture but that doesn't mean they didn't happen. Every single event was not able to be written down or transcribed. I don't see in there every meal that Moses ate, but I'll bet he did eat at least once a day. So, just because "it isn't in the Bible" doesn't mean it never happened.

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